How come this sentence wouldn't be imparfait since it is talking about a general thing...
"Roland et Albertine ne se sont jamais séparés après."
Wouldn't it be imparfait and not passé composé, because passé composé refers to specific events?
I thought it would be, "Roland et Albertine ne séperaient jamais."
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No, the passé composé is the only one which fits here. It is because you are not describing something which used to happen, but something which has continued to be the case up to this day.
It sounds like you have the wrong idea about the imperfect vs. the passé composé. The passé composé is used to describe events that happened and then stopped, such as a trip to the aquarium. The imperfect, however, is used to describe things that happened in the past and are still happening now. For example, the verb "to be" in the past tense is almost always going to be in the imperfect.^^
"Roland et Albertine ne se sont jamais séparés après."
This is passé composé.
L'imparfait would be:
"Roland et Albertine ne se séparaient jamais."
Maybe this helps: http://french.about.com/od/grammar/a/imperfect.htm
the two are previous tenses. one way of differentiating them is to ask your self: "Is the verb asserting what got here approximately or is it describing how issues have been?". besides the fact that if it quite is asserting what got here approximately, then use the passe compose; besides the fact that if it quite is asserting how issues have been, then use the imparfait. So, on your occasion, what got here approximately?---The provider provider left. subsequently, use 'est parti'. that may not conceal all situations, besides the shown fact that it is going to conceal maximum.