Why would Jesus say “my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matt. 27:46) if he in fact was also God?
There are those in here who say Jesus was 100% God and 100% Man- if that were the case, how would one explain the above verse?
Update:BC- l know where he was quoting from, that is not the question- l am asking why would he say this if in fact he was God himself?
How can God be saved given that trinitarians believe Jesus to be God? Since when does the Almighty need help?
Update 3:Robert: Do l need to remind you that Jesus " DID NOT" resurrect himself. He was dead remember?
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The bible refers to Jesus as Gods' son
Don't listen to people who say otherwise
since he was human, a human would have also thought that God had forsaken him, but if you read on jesus kept calling God the father until the temple was torn in half and an earthquake happened. there we see his Godly and human side.
Because He was full of our sin. Sin separates us from God. God is Holy and cannot be on filthy ground nor can we be on holy ground full of sin.
HE BECAME SIN WHO KNEW NO SIN. What are your thoughts on God the Father and Jesus the son being two beings as one?
I don't know, but its one of my favourite lines in the bible, pretty depressing no matter what religion (or no religion) you are.
To have a shot at your question, I don't really think its answerable, I'm sure hundreds of theologians over the centuries have had the same thought. The mystery of the trinity I guess
He was quoting the beginning of Psalm 22. Read the entire psalm and you will see that he was, in fact, NOT complaining about God abandoning him.
- Jim
P.S. Again: he was *not* complaining to God about God abandoning him. Again: he was quoting a psalm - *not* speaking to God himself, but quoting a psalm: **making a reference**. His purpose in quoting this particular psalm becomes plain to **most** people (admittedly, not all people) after they have read the psalm for themselves. After reading the Psalm, please ask yourself: what was the purpose of it - the author's purpose? Once you've determined that, please ask yourself: what was Jesus' purpose in loudly referencing that particular psalm? Does that purpose line up with Jesus willingly allowing himself to be executed (as opposed to whining to God for purely selfish reasons)? Does Jesus' loud referencing of that psalm in *any* way contradict the teaching that Jesus is God?
If I tell you, you may disregard it out-of-hand. I want you to **see for yourself**, *think for yourself* and draw a conclusion for yourself. It will be much more convincing if you do so.
Excellent question that trinitarians will argue illogically until the end of time. And how can you be 200% anything?!?! Seriously.
Well theologians would say that this is Jesus's human side and I tend to agree but not for the same reason---I think in his delusion he expected to be saved from his painful death.
Jesus did not use his divinity until after his Resurrection.
Edit...Please read my answer again. I said "AFTER" his Resurrection. Do you understand?
Are you seriously asking the most guillable followers an intellectual question about their misguided beliefs.
We are all gods, says so right in the bible.