Im pretty sure you plug in 1 and k+1 but I do not know how to do "step two" in my book.
A similar problem on yahoo answers helped me on a problem http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=201109... this problem is in the same category but different. Please help and explain.
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Suppose x > -1 and let P[n] stand for (1+x)^n ≥ 1+nx
P[0] then stands for (1+x)^0 ≥ 1+0x. Which is true since it is equivalent to 1 ≥ 1.
Note that we only needed x ≠ -1 here because 0^0 is undefined.
So suppose P[k] is true. We will show that P[k+1] must then be true also.
Since we are given P[k] is true, then we know that (1+x)^k ≥ 1+kx.
Since x > -1, then 1 + x > 0.
So multiplying both sides of (1+x)^k ≥ 1+kx by (1 + x) does not change the
direction of the inequality. We get
(1+x)^k * (1 + x) ≥ (1+kx) (1 + x)
(1+x)^k * (1 + x)^1 ≥ 1 + kx + x + kx^2
(1 + x)^(k + 1) ≥ 1 + kx + x + kx^2
Note that we are assuming k ≥ 0 and, since it is a square, x^2 ≥ 0.
So kx^2 ≥ 0. Adding 1 + kx + x to both sides, we get
1 + kx + x + kx^2 ≥ 1 + kx + x.
It follows that
(1 + x)^(k + 1) ≥ 1 + kx + x
(1 + x)^(k + 1) ≥ 1 + (k + 1)x
Hence, if P[k] is true, it follows that P[k + 1] is true.
By mathematical induction, it follows that, for all x > -1
(1+x)^n ≥ 1+nx for all natural numbers n.
to start with, it's not real for all usual numbers, considering that it's undefined for n=one million. groundwork: n=two. one million-one million/four = three/four count on real for n. Let S(n) = product(i=two...n) (one million-one million/i^two) S(n+one million) = (one million-one million/(n+one million)^two) * S(n) via induction speculation, S(n) = (n+one million)/2n (one million-one million/(n+one million)^two)(n+one million/n2) = (n^two+2n)/(n+one million)^two *(n+one million)/2n = (n^two+2n)/(2n(n+one million)) = (n+two)/two(n+one million) and the outcome is proved for all n > one million.