Hebrew: Is the verb יָרֵא used in Modern Hebrew? How is it conjugated?
I see that it falls under בניין פעל, but the vowels I see in the dictionary are not what I would expect. Is it an irregular verb?
Update:I would expect the dictionary form to be יָרַא and the present tense to be יוֹרֵא. Is that how it goes? Is any part of the conjugation irregular?
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Yes, it's an irregular verb.
It belongs to a group of verbs called גזרת ל"א: triliteral roots that have Aleph as their last letter.
In Binyan Qal (Pa'al), the participle form (masculine singular) is the same like past tense (3rd person masculine singular) in the following roots: טמ"א, יר"א, מל"א, צמ"א:
טָמֵא, יָרֵא, מָלֵא, צָמֵא
The Torah (that Christians call the former testomony) became written in Hebrew. at the same time as the Christian New testomony became written in Greek not in Hebrew. commonly the Christians that do understand Hebrew are both religious scholars or they are Messianics who're attempting to apply their skills interior the Hebrew language with the intention to fool Jewish human beings into wondering that they are actual Jews. With the hopes that in the experience that they warfare to befriend the "un-kept" Jew they'll some how sway them to grow to be a Messianic Jew (it truly is largely a Christian.)
the verbs טמא ירא מלא צמא and שנא only in past tense are conjugated differently than other verbs of the section נחי ל"א (verbs that the third consonant is א). hence
past יָרֵאתָ יָרֵאתִי etc.
present יָרֵא יְרֵאָה etc.