Verified answer

cosπ + sin(3π/2) + cos^2 (π/6) + tan(-3π/4)

cosπ = -1

sin(3π/2) = -1

cos π/6 = √3/2 and (√3/2)^2 = 3/4

tan(-3π/4) = 1

From there it's basic math:

-1 -1 + 3/4 + 1 = -2 + 3/4 + 1 = -1 + 3/4

= -4/4 + 3/4

= -1/4

sin(?/4) = a million/?4 it incredibly is likewise equivalent to a million/2 is fake... the real fee is.. in case you're soliciting for a diagram... x^2 + y^2 = z^2 with the aid of pythagorian theorem In an isosceles ideal triangle, the scale of the two legs are equivalent (x = y), so it could carry on the equation: 2y^2 = z^2 given the radius of the unit circle is a million, it incredibly is likewise reminiscent of the hypotenuse of the isosceles ideal triangle, we've: 2y^2 = a million^2 2y^2 = a million if we sparkling up for y y^2 = a million/2 y = ?(a million/2) y = ?a million/?2 y = a million/?2 yet we can't have an intensive for a denominator, so: y = ?2/2 so sin(?/4) = ?2/2 tan(?/4) = a million tan(?/4) = sin(?/4)/cos(?/4) and because x = y...(or fairly sine and cosine are equivalent) tan(?/4) = (?2/2)/(?2/2) = a million sin(?/6) = a million/2 cos(?/6) = ?3/2 as quickly as back utilising the Pythagorean theorem, this time on a 30-60-ninety ideal triangle, we replace the values of cosine and sine for x and y respectively (as quickly as back utilising the unit circle as a foundation) with a hypotenuse of a million (a million/2)^2 + (?3/2)^2 = a million^2 a million/4 + 3/4 = a million a million = a million tan(?/6) = a million/?3 is derived from tan(?/6) = sin(?/6)/cos(?/6) tan(?/6) = (a million/2)/(?3/2) = (a million/2)*(2/?3) if we cancel out the '2' we've; tan(?/6) = a million/?3