Verified answer

Take 1/√2 and multiply it by √2/√2. This equals √2 / 2.

Both of those fractions are equivalent. Here's the proof:

1/√(2)(√(2)/√(2))

=√(2)/2

If you multiply 1/√2 by √2/√2, this does not change 1/√2, since √2/√2 = 1

1/√2 = 1/√2 * √2/√2 = (1*√2) / (√2*√2) = √2/2

1/√2 multiply top and bottom by √2

You get √2/2

1/√2 * √2/√2 = √2/2

so, multiplying by '1' in the form of √2/√2 shows they are equal

It takes some calculating, but yes, they are equivalent.

they are equivalent

Yes it is. Rationalize the denom.you did it right

1/sqrt(2) = sqrt(2)/((sqrt(2)(sqrt(2)) = sqrt(2)/2