Since someone is moving my question, I' adding thee search words.
Jehovah's Witnesses
Hi T: Who really performed the miracles done by Jesus? Acts 2:22
Who resurrected Jesus? Acts 2:24
Update 3:The Jews listening erroneously applied Jesus' statement as to being one thing (hen), to being gods. To the Jews only the Father is (in greek, 'the) God' so Jesus had to be (in greek: 'a) god'. Jesus only became the 'God' some 300 years after Jesus died.
Trinitarians must have the Jews believing in the trinity for their translation to work.
Update 5:Using the KIT to prove your point is being dishonest, because it neither proves or disproves your comment to be true. It only shows your hypocrisy and blindness when it comes to the Watchtower and the trinity.
Update 7:3rd. As to the Jews knowing who Jesus was is another misrepresentation of what they said. Because at John 10:19-21 they were saying he had a demon.
So in some 12 verses Jesus went from being demonized to being 'The God'. Wow what an dark muddy pool the trinity has created.
Copyright © 2024 1QUIZZ.COM - All rights reserved.
Answers & Comments
Verified answer
It's because of hundreds of years of false teaching of the trinity.
“We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you make yourself a god.” John 10:31-33 Jesus never claimed to be a god, so why this accusation?
Well, Jesus is saying that he has powers that the Jews believe belong to God alone.
For example, regarding the “sheep” he said: “I give them everlasting life,” which is something humans cannot do. John 10:28
The Jews are overlooking the fact that Jesus has openly admitted that he received authority from his Father.
1st: The Jews didn't believe in the mysterious trinity of pseudo christians today, so they wouldn't say Jesus is God in two persons, because they knew that they would be blaspheming in saying such a thing.
So they accused Jesus of being a god which is what the Greek states.
The Jews listening erroneously applied Jesus' statement as to being one thing (hen), to being gods. To the Jews only the Father is (in greek, 'the) God' so Jesus had to be (in greek: 'a) god'. Jesus only became the 'God' some 300 years after Jesus died.
Trinitarians must have the Jews believing in the trinity for their translation to work.
2nd: Greytower the "Greek Kingdom Interlinear" doesn't insert the indefinite article anywhere in it word for word translation, because there isn't a direct word for the indefinite article. a & an.
Whereas the Emphatic Diaglott inserts the implied 'a' in everyplace it should be, including Matt 10:41 & Acts 12:22, and John 1:1
Even Vine's Dictionary admits that the literal translation of John 1:1c is 'a god was the Word'.
Using the KIT to prove your point is being dishonest, because it neither proves or disproves your comment to be true. It only shows your hypocrisy and blindness when it comes to the Watchtower and the trinity.
3rd. As to the Jews knowing who Jesus was is another misrepresentation of what they said. Because at John 10:19-21 they were saying he had a demon.
So in some 12 verses Jesus went from being demonized to being 'The God'. Wow what an dark muddy pool the trinity has created.
.
The logic is very simple. If Jesus was God why would he. call someone else "My God". John 20:17- Rev. 3:12
The New World Translation renders John 10:33 as: "because you, although being a man, make yourself a god." This is a direct reference to Psalm 82:6 which Jesus had just quoted. BUT there is no reason to say "a god" in verse 33. There is no "a" in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation.
The NIV correctly translates John 10:33 as "because you, a mere man, claim to be God." Oh, my! What a difference! The Jews knew Jesus was claiming to be God, not just "a god."
So when Jesus says in John 10:36 "I am God's Son" he was correctly referring to Elohim, and not to the son of a lesser deity, or "a god." Jesus is the one and the only Son of God, and not like mere mortals a "son of god." That would not have been justification for wanting to stone Jesus to death because that would not have been blasphemy.
So why does the KIT fail to show "a" if Jesus was merely claiming to be "a god"? And why would the Jews want to stone him to death for blasphemy if Jesus was merely claiming to be "a god"?
Reading from verse 31 gives the context, note verse 33 it says ''a god.'' see the following. John 10:24 Then the Jews surrounded him and began to say to him: “How long are you going to keep us in suspense? If you are the Christ, tell us plainly.” 25 Jesus answered them: “I told you, and yet you do not believe. The works that I am doing in my Father’s name, these bear witness about me. 26 But you do not believe, because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice, and I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them everlasting life, and they will by no means ever be destroyed, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 What my Father has given me is something greater than all other things, and no one can snatch them out of the hand of the Father. 30 I and the Father are one.”
31 Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32 Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me. 38 But if I am doing them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, so that you may come to know and may continue knowing that the Father is in union with me and I am in union with the Father.” 39 So they tried again to seize him, but he escaped from their reach.
No miss-translation there. Mat 10:41 is talking about men who are prophets, etc. Acts 12:33 is about a man who the authorities flattered calling him like a god. Or voice of a god. God sent an angel to put him right on that one. But John 10:33 is also the truth when it speaks of Jesus. Why indeed did they want murder Him? And accuse Him of blasphemy? Because they were jealous of His true righteousness and the fact that He did good even on the Sabbath - which was against the law to work on the Sabbath. Jesus proved He is much more than just another man or prophet. When He died and rose again He proved His power over death and hell for all who would believe. Jesus is the perfect sacrifice the only one capable of atoning for the sins of mankind. The perfect spotless lamb of God.
Jesus can be seen throughout the whole Bible, even right from the very beginning. He was there at the beginning of creation and nothing that was made, was made without Him.
Fundies make up what is convenient from the bible.
Because the Koine Greek word in Matthew 10:41 means "prophet", the Koine Greek words in Acts 12:22 mean "God's voice" and the Koine Greek word in John 10:33 means "God". Unfortunately, there is an Arianist religion that deliberately mistranslates the Greek of the New Testament to suit its own purposes.
1. The New Testament teaches that Jesus is god.
2. Even if something is true, you can still obsess over it.
Source please ?
Oh wait...You dont have one.
Both charming & pitiful at the same time.