May 2021 10 61 Report
Why do most bibles correctly translate: Matt 10:41 as 'a prophet' Acts 12:22 as 'a god’s voice' And yet mistranslate John 10:33 as 'God'?

Update:

Since someone is moving my question, I' adding thee search words.

Jehovah's Witnesses

Hi T: Who really performed the miracles done by Jesus? Acts 2:22

Who resurrected Jesus? Acts 2:24

Update 3:

The Jews listening erroneously applied Jesus' statement as to being one thing (hen), to being gods. To the Jews only the Father is (in greek, 'the) God' so Jesus had to be (in greek: 'a) god'. Jesus only became the 'God' some 300 years after Jesus died.

Trinitarians must have the Jews believing in the trinity for their translation to work.

Update 5:

Using the KIT to prove your point is being dishonest, because it neither proves or disproves your comment to be true. It only shows your hypocrisy and blindness when it comes to the Watchtower and the trinity.

Update 7:

3rd. As to the Jews knowing who Jesus was is another misrepresentation of what they said. Because at John 10:19-21 they were saying he had a demon.

So in some 12 verses Jesus went from being demonized to being 'The God'. Wow what an dark muddy pool the trinity has created.

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