When Thomas Jefferson wrote the phrase “all men are created equal” as part of the Declaration of Independence, do you think he meant women too? Why or why not? Use at least two historical references to support your argument.
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I don't think he meant women. In his time there were a lot of political conflicts between rich and poor men, so maybe that's what he was referring to. He wanted poor men to have the same rights as rich men. He did not apply this to different ethnicities because it was an accepted part of his culture to have a black slave. Women were also accepted by everyone to have specific roles. That's why women and black people fought so hard for their rights. I think he was just referring to socioeconomic status.
Doubtful - women weren't really part of his political philosophy. We often link Jefferson with the principle of equality. While Jefferson's Federalist opponents have been branded as social and political elitists—conservatives who insisted that the views of common people must be filtered through the wisdom of the best-bred and educated—Jefferson has been celebrated as the champion of popular wisdom. From Shmoop
Probably not! He was a slave owner, and the likelihood of him being a supporter of equal rights for women is, well, unlikely!. Remember, the writers of the declaration were in a high mood, and full of their own worthiness, and were giving full vent to their effusive and flowery vocabulary. The declaration is full of uplifting and worthy sentiments. But they were practical men, and men of their times, and were not able, or were unwilling to fullfill all of the statements.
No he was specifically referring to white males only, and was mainly trying to say that rich white males and poor white males had equal rights. It does not include females or other races which was added later through the women and civil rights movements respectively.