How does 2sinӨ simplify to 1 here?
Just need to be able to justify this step in solving an equation:
2(sinӨ)(cosӨ)^2 - 2sinӨ + 2 = 0
2(sinӨ)((cosӨ)^2 - 1) + 2 = 0
I understand it is simplified in this way to reach a variation on the pythagorean identity, but why 2sinӨ can be simplified to 1 is over my head at the moment. Thank you.
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It does not simplify to 1. It factors to 1 when you take 2sin out of the first 2 terms. This is not trig but rather algebra since it only involves factoring and not trig identities. You might find it easier if you were to substitute a for sin and b for cos.