He was a Jew addressing Jews as their prophets always did. Read the Old Testament. No seeks revenge for the killing of Jeremiah, eh. Antisemitism is a grave sin.
You should read the whole argument (verses 31-59) for context. Both sides--Jesus and the particular Jews with whom he was speaking--were using the concept of "father" as a declaration of loyalty and obedience. But Jesus knew these particular Jews were offended because he didn't treat them as big shots, and were picking a fight with him to give themselves an excuse to kill him.
His point was that people who intend a murder and plot to carry it out have no right, in his view, to claim they're on a mission from God.
Back up to John 8:31, "So Jesus said to those who believed in him,' If you obey my teaching, you are really my disciples; you will know the truth and the truth will set you free." It goes on from that point.
Jesus was not speaking to the Jewish people, but to a group of his Jewish followers who were accustomed to believing that being the children of Abraham made them the chosen people.
Jesus was telling them that they could not rest upon their ancestors for their salvation. They had to accept Him and their faith would not take them that far.
You have to read the entire situation. If you look at one verse, you are not following the conversation that is taking place. You are getting confused because you are not reading what is happening, but picking one sentence out of context and getting lost.
Your citation is from John. John was written about 100AD. It's in a time when the Xtians have been kicked out of the Temple, long since, and the rift between Jews and Xtians is growing wider. Read similar passages in the synoptic gospels and in John and you may see why many view John as antisemitic. He certainly is not sympathetic to the Jews. Jesus did not say what is quoted in John; it is mostly based on what the writer of John, decades after Jesus' death, thinks Jesus MIGHT have said. You have to keep that in mind as you read John. Keep in mind also that there are whole chapters in John which are lengthy quotes of Jesus giving these very complex discourses. Of course these words are not of Jesus. Whether Jesus MIGHT have said some of them is a different question, but the antisemitic feel which is always present in John has nothing whatever to do with the historical Jesus, about which the writer of John obviously knew next to nothing.
And that is NO SURPRISE. It would be like someone sitting down today and writing, without any written material to speak of, what someone said during World War Two. The time distance between Jesus and the writing of John is equivalent to the end of WW II to today. That puts it into perspective, don't you think?
Answers & Comments
He was a Jew addressing Jews as their prophets always did. Read the Old Testament. No seeks revenge for the killing of Jeremiah, eh. Antisemitism is a grave sin.
You should read the whole argument (verses 31-59) for context. Both sides--Jesus and the particular Jews with whom he was speaking--were using the concept of "father" as a declaration of loyalty and obedience. But Jesus knew these particular Jews were offended because he didn't treat them as big shots, and were picking a fight with him to give themselves an excuse to kill him.
His point was that people who intend a murder and plot to carry it out have no right, in his view, to claim they're on a mission from God.
Jesus was a Jew, so what is your point,,,
Clearly Jesus was justified in criticizing the Jewish leaders. As the Apostle Matthew records it ‘This people honors Me with their lips,
But their heart is far away from Me.
‘But in vain do they worship Me,
Teaching as doctrines the precepts of men.’”
Back up to John 8:31, "So Jesus said to those who believed in him,' If you obey my teaching, you are really my disciples; you will know the truth and the truth will set you free." It goes on from that point.
Jesus was not speaking to the Jewish people, but to a group of his Jewish followers who were accustomed to believing that being the children of Abraham made them the chosen people.
Jesus was telling them that they could not rest upon their ancestors for their salvation. They had to accept Him and their faith would not take them that far.
You have to read the entire situation. If you look at one verse, you are not following the conversation that is taking place. You are getting confused because you are not reading what is happening, but picking one sentence out of context and getting lost.
THE ATTITUDES fo these leaders clearly identified them as followers of Satan.
Your citation is from John. John was written about 100AD. It's in a time when the Xtians have been kicked out of the Temple, long since, and the rift between Jews and Xtians is growing wider. Read similar passages in the synoptic gospels and in John and you may see why many view John as antisemitic. He certainly is not sympathetic to the Jews. Jesus did not say what is quoted in John; it is mostly based on what the writer of John, decades after Jesus' death, thinks Jesus MIGHT have said. You have to keep that in mind as you read John. Keep in mind also that there are whole chapters in John which are lengthy quotes of Jesus giving these very complex discourses. Of course these words are not of Jesus. Whether Jesus MIGHT have said some of them is a different question, but the antisemitic feel which is always present in John has nothing whatever to do with the historical Jesus, about which the writer of John obviously knew next to nothing.
And that is NO SURPRISE. It would be like someone sitting down today and writing, without any written material to speak of, what someone said during World War Two. The time distance between Jesus and the writing of John is equivalent to the end of WW II to today. That puts it into perspective, don't you think?
Romans 3:23 Love
K
How many Jews was He talking to? All of them?