Let A, B, C be nonempty sets and let f, g, h be functions such that f:A → B, g:B → C, and h:B → C. Prove or disprove the statement: If g ∘ f= h ∘ f, then g=h
Please go step by step because i do not understand.
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Not necessarily true. Let A = {1,2,3}, B = {4,5,6}, C = {7,8,9}. Lets define the following functions:
f(1) = 4, f(2) = 4, f(3) = 4, that is, f maps all elements in A to 4 in B.
Then define g(4) = 7, g(5) = 8, g(6) = 8.
Also define h(4) = 7, h(5) = 9, h(6) = 9. Then clearly h not= g, as g = {(4,7), (5,8), (6,8)}, h = {(4,7), (5,9), (6,9)}.
Then we see that g ∘ f= h ∘ f = 7 for all a in A, however g not= h, so this is a counterexample to the statement.
I think the statement is only true if f is onto B.
Proof: Let f be a surjective mapping from A onto B. Then for all b in B, b = f(a) for some a in A.
Now using point-wise evaluation, choose any b in B.
Then g(b) = g(f(a)) for some a in A, and g(f(a)) =(g ∘ f)(a)= (h ∘ f)(a)=h(f(a)) = h(b). Since our choice of b was arbitrary, g(b) = h(b) for all b in B, hence g = h.
i'm no longer certain even if it style of feels there must be. Do re mi fa sol la si do is a level of vocalizing an escalating scale. The letters a through g are notes of the important scale. pondering the first and intensely last vocalization is "do", and the first and intensely last note of a scale are the same, i'd recommend that possibly this trend is utilized even as vocalizing a scale.