check whether is a probability density function. f(x) = 1/3 (1 − x2) on [0, 1] and f (x) = e^x on [0, ln2]?
thanks I just wanted to make sure that I have been solving these correctly. Also If a function fails to be a probability density function, say why. If you could show work would be appreciated.
probability of any individual event lies between 0 and 1 (no negative probabilities and no probabilities that exceed 100%)
Integral of pdf = 1.000
f(x) = 1/3(1-x^2) on [0, 1]. Observe that 1/3(1-x^2) > 0 for all x in the interval. Observe the maximum value of f(x) = 1/3 (i.e., less than 1.00), so it is a good candidate for a pdf.
Finally, Integral f(x) = 1/3x - 1/9x^3 from 0 to 1. F(1) - F(0) = 1/3 - 1/9 - 0 + 0 = 2/9. FAIL. It would have been if the function were g(x) = 9/2 f(x).
Likewise, f(x) = e^x is positive for all x. e^(0) = 1, but e^(ln 2) = 2 > 1, so it cannot be.
Integral of e^x = e^x from 0 to ln 2 = 2 - 1 = 1. (If not for the fact there are events with probabilities exceeding 1.00, this might have been a pdf.
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You need to check for two things:
probability of any individual event lies between 0 and 1 (no negative probabilities and no probabilities that exceed 100%)
Integral of pdf = 1.000
f(x) = 1/3(1-x^2) on [0, 1]. Observe that 1/3(1-x^2) > 0 for all x in the interval. Observe the maximum value of f(x) = 1/3 (i.e., less than 1.00), so it is a good candidate for a pdf.
Finally, Integral f(x) = 1/3x - 1/9x^3 from 0 to 1. F(1) - F(0) = 1/3 - 1/9 - 0 + 0 = 2/9. FAIL. It would have been if the function were g(x) = 9/2 f(x).
Likewise, f(x) = e^x is positive for all x. e^(0) = 1, but e^(ln 2) = 2 > 1, so it cannot be.
Integral of e^x = e^x from 0 to ln 2 = 2 - 1 = 1. (If not for the fact there are events with probabilities exceeding 1.00, this might have been a pdf.
If any function f(x) is a PDF on some interval [a,b] then
Integral[a,b](f(x) dx) = 1
Let f(x) = 1/3 (1-x^2) on [0,1]
Integral[0,1](f(x) dx) = 1/3*(x -1/3 x^3)[0,1] = 1/3*{1 - 1/3} = 2/9 so this is not a PDF
Let f(x) = e^x on [0, ln2]
Integral[0,ln(2)](f(x) dx) =e^x[0,ln(2)] = {1 -e^(ln(2))} = 1 - 2 = -1 again not a PDF
(1/3) ∫ (1-x^2) dx
= (1/3) ( x-x^3/3)
= x/3 - x^3/9
Let F(x) = x/3 - x^3/9
F(1) = 1/3-1/9 = 2/9
F(0) = 0
F(1)-F(0) = 2/9
Since f(x) does not integrate to 1 on (0,1), f(x) is not a probability density function.
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∫ e^x dx = e^x
Let F(x) = e^x
F(ln 2) = e^ln 2 = 2
F(0) = e^0 = 1
F(ln 2) - F(0) = 2-1 = 1
Since the function integrates to 1 on [0, ln2], f(x) is a probability function.
The gist of the communicate available (sorry, there are too many pages to offer all the hyperlinks) is that wands help to concentration the magic resident interior the witch or wizard, yet wandless magic remains feasible, fairly for extremely proficient human beings like Snape and Dumbledore. some examples ... Apparition Assuming one's Animagus sort (or Metamorphpagus) Accio (the Summoning charm) Elves can do magic with out utilising wands Lumos