Show that if L > 0, then lim x→a (fg)(x) = ∞.
Because lim x-> a f(x) = L > 0, then taking epsilon = L/2 > 0, we can apply the definition of a limit to see that some d > 0 exists such that:
0 < |x - a| < d ===> |f(x) - L| < L/2
===> -L/2 < f(x) - L < L/2
===> L/2 < f(x) < 3L/2
===> f(x) > L/2
From there we know that, around this neighbourhood:
(fg)(x) = f(x)g(x) > (L/2)g(x)
which tends to infinity, by algebra of limits. Thus, by (infinite) squeeze theorem, we see that (fg)(x) ---> infinity.
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Because lim x-> a f(x) = L > 0, then taking epsilon = L/2 > 0, we can apply the definition of a limit to see that some d > 0 exists such that:
0 < |x - a| < d ===> |f(x) - L| < L/2
===> -L/2 < f(x) - L < L/2
===> L/2 < f(x) < 3L/2
===> f(x) > L/2
From there we know that, around this neighbourhood:
(fg)(x) = f(x)g(x) > (L/2)g(x)
which tends to infinity, by algebra of limits. Thus, by (infinite) squeeze theorem, we see that (fg)(x) ---> infinity.