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Yes he did one must remember that women are considered part of "man kind" like human kind but lets not forget that yea all men are created equal but whether or not they were made equal by society is a whole other question.

I think the phrase was 'all men are created equal' - did it refer to women as well? Yes. All persons were created equal, but not all were given equal opportunities. Women, Blacks and others were never afforded the opportunity to participate in government, in legal and political matters, to attend universitites (some women were allowed to attend some universities, but only to study fine arts, not the sciences) If you're looking for references to support an argument, it sounds as though you are doing a homework assignment, and I've given you my personal thoughts on your question, but decline to do your homework.

That's a good question. I'm not sure about Jefferson, but I know Adams thought so. He didn't push the women's issue too hard because he was focused on the immediate issue of gaining our independence first.

I think he meant all white, land owning Americans are created equal. They weren't too into equality in the 1700s

yes, obviously. Man refers to mankind, all humans. At the time it's obvious woman's lib was a little behind and mankind meant everyone. It'd be hard to argue, realistically otherwise.

Yes I do. The term "man" can be used to describe humanity, both male and female.

The last I heard women were not men (this truth is self evident).

I think maybe so maybe not, my personal opinion is that he did mean women too.

he meant all... and sidenote he did write a section abolishing slavery. (it was taken out)