What distinguishes Aquinas’ argument “from change” from his argument “from causality”?

Focus on the difference mainly. Offer an objection to one (or to both) arguments.

*Note: This is not homework! It's simply a test preparation question. In other words, it doesn't matter where I get the information, just so long as it's the right information. Therefore, please spare me the "do your own homework" response.

Update:

First off, I realize you guys don't know the answer, which is kind of sad seeing as though one of you is a philosophy major. That said, it really doesn't matter where I obtain this information. Let's put it this way, if you think yahoo answers is the only place I'm looking you are out of your gord. I'm referencing several different sources. The reason I like yahoo answers is because occasionally (though definitely not in this case) I get intelligent people with intelligent well thought out answers. Honestly, why even go on yahoo answers if you're just going to provide snide smart *** remarks, that contribute absolutely nothing to the educational environment--and make no effort whatsoever to answer the questions at hand.

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