No

and

you should NEVER quote that half-verse out of context, because the remainder of the sentence explains and clarifies the point that the author is making.

Translated:

Christ

has stopped (ended) the (Mosaic) Law

from being the way to righteousness

for those who believe in Christ.

I.e. for Christians

Mosaic Law is no longer the way to righteousness.

No, what it is stating is that no one can live in the law

for we all sin and break the law, but through believing in Jesus our sins are forgiven.

Christ's righteousness exceeds that of any righteousness that can be obtained by the Law.

The Law cannot give life, only Christ can give life.The Law can only find out breaches of the Law.

The Law, as a schoolmaster can lead you to Christ, but it is Christ and His righteousness that you need.

Yes, and in favor of the "Law of Christ", 1 Cor. 9:21, Gal. 6:2, James 1:25, 2:12.  Compare Hebrews 8:13.

Yes.  Christians are not subject to "the Law, that body of 613 rules, and laws that devout Jews follow as their Covenant with God.  This is why Jesus is sometimes called the "Second Covenant."

You know that it doesn't, which is why you cut it off mid-sentence with your little ellipsis (...). You've not only taken it out of context, but you've removed the next words to make it seem as though it says something it doesn't say.

Isaiah 28 yes you don't put new wine into old wine skins  God hasn't changed his judgment has. Under mosaic law you were guilty of igornant sin  where under Christ your forgiven for it 

No. “Ended the law for righteousness.”  It means obedience to the law doesn’t save.