Oh! I know this. My teacher discussed it with my class. Answer:yes.
Slavery began before racial prejudice. Workers were always needed to make work easier and to boost the economy, and having workers who one didn't have to pay was always beneficial to the societies (although a violation of people's rights). The Europeans used to transport the Slavic people for slaves. When the Ottoman Empire took over the region, the Europeans had to move to Africa to find slaves. Obviously, mistreatment of a fellow human being is sure to ride on one's conscience, so a mental and social hierarchy was created in which the slaves were at the bottom. This way, there was no need to worry about feeling guilty becasue, according to the hierarchy, the slaves were inferior.
It depends on when and where, most civilization of the world had some form of slavery. The U.S. is one of the few exceptions that practiced "racialized slavery." During the Roman Empire and in many French colonies such as New Orleans, for instance, slaves were more of a class of society. A slave could work for a wage saving enough to buy his or her own freedom.
No. Racialism was a theory concoted by Europeans to make them feel superior to Africans so they wouldn't have to feel guilty about taking away all their rights.
Racism existed in Europe prior to this if you want to call the Jews a race, which they aren't, but the Spanish treated them as such and cruelly persecuted them during the Spanish Inquisition.
To clarify, racialism wasn't a thought out coherent theory. It was an attitude that became an excuse and then a curse.
It's easy to get racism confused with xenophobia. The Chinese were extremely xenophobic, but not racist.
As far as we know, slavery has existed for as long as human history has. We don't know what the original cause of slavery was, but not all forms of slavery have been racial slavery. In fact, it's probably safe to say that most forms of slavery have not been because of racism but because of poverty.
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Oh! I know this. My teacher discussed it with my class. Answer:yes.
Slavery began before racial prejudice. Workers were always needed to make work easier and to boost the economy, and having workers who one didn't have to pay was always beneficial to the societies (although a violation of people's rights). The Europeans used to transport the Slavic people for slaves. When the Ottoman Empire took over the region, the Europeans had to move to Africa to find slaves. Obviously, mistreatment of a fellow human being is sure to ride on one's conscience, so a mental and social hierarchy was created in which the slaves were at the bottom. This way, there was no need to worry about feeling guilty becasue, according to the hierarchy, the slaves were inferior.
Do you understand what I said? O_O
Hope I helped!
Your question is incredibly broad.
It depends on when and where, most civilization of the world had some form of slavery. The U.S. is one of the few exceptions that practiced "racialized slavery." During the Roman Empire and in many French colonies such as New Orleans, for instance, slaves were more of a class of society. A slave could work for a wage saving enough to buy his or her own freedom.
No. Racialism was a theory concoted by Europeans to make them feel superior to Africans so they wouldn't have to feel guilty about taking away all their rights.
Racism existed in Europe prior to this if you want to call the Jews a race, which they aren't, but the Spanish treated them as such and cruelly persecuted them during the Spanish Inquisition.
To clarify, racialism wasn't a thought out coherent theory. It was an attitude that became an excuse and then a curse.
It's easy to get racism confused with xenophobia. The Chinese were extremely xenophobic, but not racist.
As far as we know, slavery has existed for as long as human history has. We don't know what the original cause of slavery was, but not all forms of slavery have been racial slavery. In fact, it's probably safe to say that most forms of slavery have not been because of racism but because of poverty.