My parents have always operated as a team in their endeavors. With the purchase of their first property in 1965, any and all legitimate real estate documents (and any other significant paperwork) necessitating the signature(s) of owners, responsible parties, borrowers, mortgagees, titleholders, landlord, buyer, seller, etc., was always signed by both of them.
Additionally, both names were always typed accurately, below spaces provided for their legal signatures. They always used their legal signatures. The documents’ date was established by them at the time of signing. Professional. There were no visible defects in those documents, nor ‘cause for pause’ in correlated documents. No fraud.
While investigating and fighting mortgage/foreclosure fraud, we’ve gathered so much verifiable, undeniable evidence proving criminal fraud and the associated crimes, that capital punishment for participants should be considered.
Aside from the fact of absolute fraud, mountains of contradictory, unrecorded documents and other severely defective paperwork exists. One of the more obvious defects in some of these fraudulent mortgage and loan documents is the omission of one parents’ involvement and signature.
Although we maintain an unwavering confidence in the knowledge that everything involved is truly massive mortgage/foreclosure and bank fraud, and have the evidence to prove it...the issue surrounding solitary signatures, rather than the usual two, on documents involving hundreds of thousands of dollars, on what are supposed to be binding, official documents...may be no more than just another defective detail bearing moderate significance. Particularly when joined with so many other monumentally fraudulent circumstances and inaccuracies.
But in order to get the attention this case deserves, I will apply everything available. So, is this significant evidence in a mortgage fraud case? You can’t make this stuff up.
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Sounds like evidence of nothing at all. It's not fraudulent or illegal in any way for a man to purchase real estate in his own name without the wife being involved, the fact that some previous transaction was done jointly is completely irrelevant.
Lack of one parent's signature does not constitute fraud. Anyone can sign for a mortgage - it's all about payment. Bank has the right begin foreclosure anytime a payment is late. It's up to mortgagor to comply. I don't understand why you feel this is fraud? It was incumbent on both parties to the transaction to ensure they crossed Ts and dotted Is. Surely s/he who is undertaking such a major transaction is responsible to ensure documents are in order. Where is the fraud? Was the property not properly conveyed? Did mortgagor not get the benefit of it? Or is this simply another greedy American who feels they should live like kings without the need to actually pay anything? More info required on the fraud if one exists.